The Apostle Paul wrote the bulk of the New Testament, and it is his first letter to the believers at Thessalonica that gives the most explicit statement about the Rapture. In 1 Thess. 4:16-17, Paul wrote,
"For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And so we will be with the Lord forever."
The teaching that Christ will return to this earth one day, and that we believers will be resurrected and/or changed (depending on if we are still living when He comes) is an explicit teaching of the Bible. There is no question about that.
There is, however, question about WHEN this will happen. Many evangelical and Pentecostal Christians believe that this event will occur seven years before Christ returns to Earth to set up His kingdom, and, not coincidentally, before the Tribulation of the Book of Revelation comes on the Earth. A growing number of Christians are re-examining this teaching, looking at its source, when it came to the Church, and are studying the scriptures to see if what we have been told in prophesy conferences and by evangelists is correct.
For the purposes of this article I want to look at what Paul taught about the Rapture and the Second Coming, as well as what Peter had to say.
Pauline Vocabulary of the Second Coming
There are several terms relating to the Second Coming and the Rapture that need to be mentioned and defined, at this point. Three are Greek words, all dealing with Rapture:
As well, Pre-Tribulation Rapture teachers make a distinction between two Days:
According to Pre-Tribbers, this is the division of these events:
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| Parousia | Apokalupsis, Epiphaneia |
| Day of Christ | Day of the Lord |
Is this teaching accurate? Does Paul differentiate between the Rapture and the Second Coming? Are the terms which are used by Paul and divided by Rapture teachers so easily categorized? Was Paul looking for the Rapture or the Second Coming of Christ? And, which did he tell Christians to be looking for? Let's find out.
Confounding the Greek?
What do I mean by "confounded?" We think of the word "confound" to mean confused, puzzled, but it also has another meaning. "To confound" means to "fail to discern differences between." In other words, to confound two or three words is to see no differences between them, to use them interchangeably, as synonyms for each other.
This is what Paul does with his terminology of the Second Coming, and it is this refusal to "confound" the terms as Paul does, to see that Paul used three Greek words to refer to the same event, that leads to bad teaching on the part of Pre-Tribulation Rapture teachers.
Parousia, Apokalupsis, Epiphaneia
As I demonstrated above, there are three Greek words used by Paul and the apostles when discussing the return of Christ: parousia, epiphaneia and apokalupsis. In the famous Rapture passage, when telling the Thessalonians of "the coming of the Lord" (1 Thess. 4:15), Paul uses the word "parousia," here. Because of this, pre-tribbers say that the Parousia/Coming of Christ FOR the Church occurs at the beginning of the Tribulation. The other two words are always used in ways that indicate that Christ will appear/be manifested (epiphaneia) or be revealed (apokalupsis) at the end of the Tribulation, at the Second Coming, when He comes WITH His church.
So that there can be no doubt about the words apokalupsis and epiphaneia, here are verses that definitely show that Christ's "appearing," and/or "revealing" occur at the end of the Tribulation:
2 Thess. 1:7 and give relief to you who are troubled, and to us as well. This will happen when the Lord Jesus is revealed (apokalupsis) from heaven in blazing fire with his powerful angels.
Luke 17:30 "It will be just like this on the day the Son of Man is revealed. (apokalupto- Strong's #601)
2 Tim. 4:1 In the presence of God and of Christ Jesus, who will judge the living and the dead, and in view of his appearing (epiphaneia) and his kingdom, I give you this charge:
2 Thess. 2:8 And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will overthrow with the breath of his mouth and destroy by the splendor (epiphaneia) of his coming. (NIV)
2 Thess. 2:8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness (epiphaneia) of his coming: (KJ)
You can see that apokalupsis (and its sister word, apokalupto) and epiphaneia refer to Tribulation ending events: appearing with angels, judging the living and the dead, destroying the Anti-Christ. These are terms that, quite rightly, Pre-Tribulation Rapture teachers say refer to the end of the tribulation, to the Second Coming of Christ at the end of the age.
Paul's Confounding
However, there seems to be a problem, because Paul seems to be confused in his writings to the churches. After all, according to pre-tribbers, Paul is the one who taught the Pre-Tribulation Rapture, and since he knows that Christians are not going to be here at the end of the Tribulation, he wouldn't need to talk about it to them, much less encourage them about it. And yet, look at what he wrote to the Corinthians:
1 Cor. 1:7 Therefore you do not lack any spiritual gift as you eagerly wait for our Lord Jesus Christ to be revealed. (apokalupsis)
1 Cor. 1:7 So that ye come behind in no gift; waiting for the coming (apokalupsis) of our Lord Jesus Christ:
If Christians are not going to be here at the end of the Tribulation, but be with Christ for the entire time, why would Paul tell the Corinthian believers that they were waiting for the revealing/apokalupsis of Christ, which Pre-Tribulation teachers say refers to the END of the Tribulation? Why are the Corinthians waiting for the REVEALING of Christ, rather than the COMING of Christ, which is supposed to be at the Rapture?
When does Paul tell the believers at Thessalonica that they will find relief from their persecution?
2 Thess. 1:7 and give relief to you who are troubled, and to us as well. This will happen when the Lord Jesus is revealed (apokalupsis) from heaven in blazing fire with his powerful angels.
If, in 1 Thess. 4, Paul explained the Pre-Tribulation Rapture to the Thessalonians, then why does he tell them here, in his second letter, that they will be given relief from their troubles when Christ is revealed at the END of the Tribulation? With references to coming with blazing fire and angels, this is not a Pre-Tribulation rapture but the Second Coming. Paul doesn't point these Christians to the Rapture, but to the Second Coming.
When writing to his son in the faith, Paul gives this charge to Timothy:
1 Tim. 6:14 to keep this command without spot or blame until the appearing (epiphaneia) of our Lord Jesus Christ,
Why? Isn't the appearing/epiphaneia at the END of the Tribulation, at the Second Coming? If Timothy is going to be gone in the Rapture, seven years before, why does Paul tell him to look to the Second Coming, instead?
This is mentioned, again, in Paul's second letter to Timothy:
2 Tim. 4:1 In the presence of God and of Christ Jesus, who will judge the living and the dead, and in view of his appearing (epiphaneia) and his kingdom, I give you this charge:
Not in view of the Rapture, but in view of His appearing at the Second Coming. That is what epiphaneia refers to.
In fact, Paul himself tells us that he, Paul, is looking forward to the Second Coming, and not the Rapture. Read this, just a few verses later:
2 Tim. 4:8 Now there is in store for me the crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous Judge, will award to me on that day-- and not only to me, but also to all who have longed for his appearing. (epiphaneia)
"Well," you say, "Paul knew he was going to be executed, and wouldn't be raptured, so he has to look to the Second Coming." Wrong, on two counts.
First, don't forget that the Rapture is for the Christian dead, as well as the Christian living. "The living shall not prevent the dead," remember? So Paul would still be looking to the Rapture, when he would be resurrected. And yet, he doesn't look to that. Knowing that he is going to be executed, he looks to the Second Coming, and the resurrection that occurs there.
Second point, even if the dead were not going in the Rapture, Paul speaks of "all who love His appearing" (KJV). Why would they love His appearing, and not His Rapture? Could it be that Paul didn't point to a Pre-Tribulation Rapture, but to the Second Coming? Sure looks like it, to me.
Paul isn't the only New Testament writer who points his readers to the Second Coming, the epiphaneia/apokalupsis of Jesus Christ. Read this in Peter's epistle:
1 Pet. 1:7 These have come so that your faith-- of greater worth than gold, which perishes even though refined by fire-- may be proved genuine and may result in praise, glory and honor when Jesus Christ is revealed. (apokalupsis) - NIV
1 Pet. 1:7 That the trial of your faith, being much more precious than of gold that perisheth, though it be tried with fire, might be found unto praise and honour and glory at the appearing (apokalupsis) of Jesus Christ: - KJ
In Pet. 1:7, translated "revealed" (NIV) and "appearing" (KJ), Peter encourages his readers that when Christ appears at the end of the Tribulation, their persecutions will have refined their faith into something greater than gold: praise to Christ. Peter doesn't tell them that they will be going to a seven-year Marriage Supper of the Lamb. He tells them that our faith will be praise and glory to Christ when He is revealed. And we know that He is revealed at the Second Coming, and not before.
Another verse from Peter:
1 Pet. 4:13 But rejoice that you participate in the sufferings of Christ, so that you may be overjoyed when his glory is revealed. (apokalupsis)
Why would we wait to rejoice seven years? Why wouldn't we be rejoicing the entire seven years we are in heaven? Maybe we aren't there?
A final verse from Peter:
1 Pet. 5:1 To the elders among you, I appeal as a fellow elder, a witness of Christ's sufferings and one who also will share in the glory to be revealed: (apokalupto)
Peter isn't looking for rewards to be given out during the Tribulation, in heaven. Peter speaks of sharing in Christ's glory when He is revealed. Nowhere does Peter hint that Christians should be doing anything other than looking for the Second Coming.
I spoke of the "confounding" of the Rapture and the Second Coming, in the Greek. Here is a verse that truly confounds the two events, and places the Rapture at the end of the Tribulation, and not before:
2 Thess. 2:8 And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will overthrow with the breath of his mouth and destroy by the splendor (epiphaneia) of his coming. (parousia)
2 Thess. 2:8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness (epiphaneia) of his coming: (parousia)
As we saw above, parousia is the word used for Christ's coming before the Tribulation. From the famous Rapture passage:
1 Thess. 4:15 According to the Lord's own word, we tell you that we who are still alive, who are left till the coming (parousia) of the Lord, will certainly not precede those who have fallen asleep.
But in 2 Thess. 2:8, Paul places the words epiphaneia and parousia together, these two words that are supposed to refer to two separate events. And not only that, it is Christ's Coming (parousia) that will destroy the anti-Christ. This Parousia, this coming of Christ in 1 Thess 4:15, is at the end of the Tribulation, when His Parousia will destroy the Anti-Christ. This cannot possibly refer to a secret, seven-years-earlier Rapture.
The distinctions that Pre-Tribulation Rapture teachers try to make between Parousia and Apokalupsis/Epiphaneia don't wash. Paul confounds the terms together, and so the attempt to make distinctions, in order to create a doctrine of an escape from the Tribulation has no support, in Paul or Peter's writings.
Day of the Lord vs. Day of Christ
Another area in which Pre-Tribulation Rapture teachers try to make a distinction in terminology, where there is none, is betweeen the Day of the Lord and the Day of Christ. There is no doubt that the Bible speaks about the "Day of the Lord" as being the final end-time judgment, both in the Old and New Testament. It is a major theme of the minor prophets.
Joel 1:15 Alas for that day! For the day of the LORD is near; it will come like destruction from the Almighty.
Joel 2:1 Blow the trumpet in Zion; sound the alarm on my holy hill. Let all who live in the land tremble, for the day of the LORD is coming. It is close at hand--
Joel 2:11 The LORD thunders at the head of his army; his forces are beyond number, and mighty are those who obey his command. The day of the LORD is great; it is dreadful. Who can endure it?
Joel 2:31 The sun will be turned to darkness and the moon to blood before the coming of the great and dreadful day of the LORD.
Joel 3:14 Multitudes, multitudes in the valley of decision! For the day of the LORD is near in the valley of decision.
Amos 5:18 Woe to you who long for the day of the LORD! Why do you long for the day of the LORD? That day will be darkness, not light.
Amos 5:20 Will not the day of the LORD be darkness, not light-- pitch-dark, without a ray of brightness?
Obad. 1:15 "The day of the LORD is near for all nations. As you have done, it will be done to you; your deeds will return upon your own head.
Zeph. 1:7 Be silent before the Sovereign LORD, for the day of the LORD is near. The LORD has prepared a sacrifice; he has consecrated those he has invited.
Zeph. 1:14 "The great day of the LORD is near--near and coming quickly. Listen! The cry on the day of the LORD will be bitter, the shouting of the warrior there.
Zeph. 2:2 before the appointed time arrives and that day sweeps on like chaff, before the fierce anger of the LORD comes upon you, before the day of the LORD's wrath comes upon you.
Zeph. 2:3 Seek the LORD, all you humble of the land, you who do what he commands. Seek righteousness, seek humility; perhaps you will be sheltered on the day of the LORD's anger.
Zech. 14:1 A day of the LORD is coming when your plunder will be divided among you.
Mal. 4:5 "See, I will send you the prophet Elijah before that great and dreadful day of the LORD comes.
In the New Testament, as well, the Day of the Lord refers to the Second Coming of Christ to end this world's system and set up His kingdom.
Acts 2:20 The sun will be turned to darkness and the moon to blood before the coming of the great and glorious day of the Lord. (This is Peter quoting Joel 2:31, above)
2 Pet. 3:10 But the day of the Lord will come like a thief. The heavens will disappear with a roar; the elements will be destroyed by fire, and the earth and everything in it will be laid bare. ("be burned up," King James)1 Thess. 5:2 for you know very well that the day of the Lord will come like a thief in the night. (more about this verse, below)
Sun turned to darkness, moon turned to blood, elements melting and burning, etc. These verses definitely place the Day of the Lord at the end of the present age. But what about the Day of Christ, which is supposed to come seven years before, at the beginning of the Tribulation? What does the Bible have to say about that?
Phil. 1:6 being confident of this, that he who began a good work in you will carry it on to completion until the day of Christ Jesus.
Phil. 1:10 so that you may be able to discern what is best and may be pure and blameless until the day of Christ,
Phil. 2:16 as you hold out the word of life-- in order that I may boast on the day of Christ that I did not run or labor for nothing.
Do you see anything about when this Day of Christ is supposed to happen? I don't, because there isn't any reference to the Tribulation or to a Rapture in these verses. So where did this teaching come from? From a need to create a distinction between the Second Coming of Christ, and the supposed Pre-Tribulation Rapture of the Church.
There is one other verse that refers to a Day of the Lord AND a Day of Christ, 1 Cor. 1:8:
He will keep you strong to the end, so that you will be blameless on the day of our Lord Jesus Christ.
Here is a verse that does speak about the end, AND does refer to the Day of Christ. However, it also calls it the Day of the Lord. Paul combines the terms to refer to one event. Is this the Day of Christ, before the Tribulation, or is this the Day of the Lord, at the end of the age, when Christ's Second Coming occurs? Pre-Tribbers would note that Paul is telling Christians that Christ will keep them strong until that day, so this must be the Day of Christ, at the Rapture. But if this is so, is the doctrine of the Rapture, so well-known to Paul in I Thess., so obscure to him here that he confounds the Day of Christ and the Day of the Lord?
There is a definite need to place the Day of the Lord at the end of the Tribulation. Scripture warrants it. However, in the verses referring to the Day of Christ, there is nothing there that calls for it to be placed before the Tribulation. None of these verses contain a "time signature," a dating of the Day of Christ before the Tribulation. And Paul confounds the two terms, anyway. So there can be no distinction drawn between the two.
Conclusion
Have you ever heard ministers preach on the Rapture and tell you that the hope of the Christian is the Rapture? I know I have. My pastor has; I have tapes of ministers, both within and without my denomination, who say this; I know of several radio and TV ministers who have said this. But what does Paul say?
Titus 2:13 while we wait for the blessed hope--the glorious appearing (epiphaneia) of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ,
According to Paul, we are to look to the Epiphaneia of Christ, the Revealing of Christ. And this, according to the definition of Rapture teachers, has to occur at the end of the Tribulation, at the Second Coming.
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